Rigorous preparation is mandatory for ESIC Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam in order to crack it. It is advisable by the team of Nursing Study Material to regularly practice the ESIC Staff Nurse Recruitment exam questions to boost up your confidence level.
Moreover Old ESIC Staff Nurse Question Papers help candidates identify the important and frequently asked questions and enhance their knowledge in all the nursing specializations. Therefore not only the candidate's confidence level, but also their scores will definitely shoot up by following the methodology as suggested.
1. About 60-80% of all reported cases of foodborne diseases are due to
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Salmonella
(c) Clostridium perfringens
(d) Bacillus cereus
Ans. (B): Salmonella: Salmonella is one of the most common types of food poisoning caused by bacteria. It usually means stomach cramps and diarrhea that lasts four to seven days. It can be more serious for some people.
2. In high radial nerve lesion the following muscles are paralyzed. EXCEPT.
(a) Triceps brachii
(b) Brachioradialis
(c) Extensor carpi radialis longus
(d) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Ans. (A): The triceps brachii is innervated by the radial nerve, which gives off a separate branch for each head. but brachioradialis extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis get paralysed in high radial nerve lesion.
3. “Pendulum exercises” prescribed for frozen shoulders are
(a) Active exercises
(b) Passive exercises
(c) Active-assisted exercises
(d) Assisted exercises
Ans. (B): Passive exercises: One of the primary benefits of the pendulum exercise is that it is passive. This means that there is very little contraction of the muscles surrounding shoulder. (pendulum exercises)
4. The best method for estimation of bone mineral density is
(a) Quantitative computed tomography
(b) Single energy x-ray absorptiometry
(c) Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
(d) Radiographic absorptiometry
Ans. (C): Dual Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry: The most common and accurate way uses a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan. DEXA uses low-dose x-rays.The test can measure bone density at your hip and lumbar spine.
5. Which statement regarding clinical union of a fracture of bone is FALSE?
(a) No abnormal movement at fracture site
(b) Attempted angulation is painful
(c) Radiographically fracture line is visible
(d) Safe for unprotected stress
Ans. (D): Safe for unprotected stress: clinical union of fracture is defined by no pain/tenderness or movement at fracture site. It is unsafe in unprotected stress.
6. The common “ankle sprain” involves injury to:
(a) Lateral ligamentous complex
(b) Anterior talofibular ligament
(c) Calcaneofibular ligament
(d) Talofibular ligament
Ans. (B): Anterior Talofibular Ligament: Ankle sprains most commonly involve injury to the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL).
7. An absolute contraindication for Oral Contraceptive Pill is
(a) Age over 40 years
(b) Mild hypertension
(c) Epilepsy
(d) Cancer of the breast
Ans. (D): Cancer Of The Breast: Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy.
8. Norplant is an example of a
(a) Subdermal implant
(b) Vaginal ring
(c) First generation IUD
(d) Second generation IUD
Ans. (A): Subdermal Implants: The Norplant system is a famous transdermal implant used to deliver the contraceptive drug Levonorgestrel in a steady state rate for a period of 5 years.
9. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in the year
(a) 1975
(b) 1971
(c) 1983
(d) 1997
Ans. (B): 1971: The Medical Termination Of Pregnancy Act, 1971. (Act No. 34 of 1971). An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered.
10. The scope of family planning services includes:
(a) Advice on sterility
(b) The proper spacing and limitation of births
(c) Education on parenthood
(d) All of the above
Ans. (D): All Of The Above: The scope of family planning can include preconception and interconception care; screening and treatment of sexually transmitted infections; and education, counseling and provision of effective contraceptive methods for women.
11. A Net Reproduction Rate of 1 can be achieved only if the Couple Protection Rate exceeds
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
Ans. (C): 60%: Contraceptive prevalence rate is the proportion of women of reproductive age who are using (or whose partner is using) a contraceptive method at a given point in time NRR=1 can be achieved only when CPR exceeds 60.
12. An example of Post-Conceptional method is
(a) Menstrual induction
(b) Subdermal implants
(c) Vaginal rings
(d) Injectable contraceptives
Ans. (A): Menstrual Induction: Post conception refers to the period when early pregnancy is suspected but cannot be easily confirmed by clinical findings or by conventional laboratory tests
13. Rickettsial pox is transmitted by the insect vector:
(a) Louse
(b) Flea
(c) Tick
(d) Mite
Ans. (D): Mite: Rickettsialpox is a mild, self-limiting disease caused by the bacterial organism Rickettsia akari . It is transmitted by the bite of an infected mouse mite
14. Average incubation period of rubella is
(a) 10 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 18 days
(d) 21 days
Ans. (B): 14 days: The usual incubation period for rubella is 14 days; with a range of 12 to 23 days.
15. How many types of vaccines are there against Japanese Enceptialitis-?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (D): 4: There are 4 main types of JE vaccines currently in use: inactivated mouse brain-derived vaccines, inactivated Vero cell-derived vaccines, live attenuated vaccines, and live recombinant (chimeric) vaccines.
16. All of the following are elements of primary health care. EXCEPT:
(a) Immunization against major infectious diseases
(b) Provision of essential drugs
(c) Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases
(d) Camps for periodic health checkup
Ans. (D): Camps for periodic health check up: Elements of primary health care.
• Education about prevailing health problems and how to prevent and control them.
• Food supply and proper nutrition.
• Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation.
• Maternal and child health, Family planning.
• Immunisation against infectious diseases.
• Prevention and control of endemic diseases.
17. At village level, primary health care is provided by all, except
(a) ASHA
(b) Anganwadi worker
(c) Local dais
(d) Multipurpose worker (Male Health Worker)
Ans. (D): Multipurpose Worker (Male Health Worker): Village level primary health care provided by ASHA,angan-wadiworker and local dias-multipurpose health worker (MPHW) is the key functionary and the first contact person in a subcenter.
18. Population covered by one sub-centre in general is
(a) 1,000
(b) 5,000
(c) 10,000
(d) 25,000
Ans. (B): 5000: The sub-centre is the peripheral outpost of the Indian healthcare system; One subcentre caters to the healthcare needs of 5000 population in general and 3000 in hilly area.
19. The trace element which plays a role in insulin function is
(a) Copper
(b) Cobalt
(c) Chromium
(d) Selenium
Ans. (A): Copper: The fourteen trace elements are cobalt, zinc, copper, rubidium, molybdenum, vanadium, iron, selenium, manganese, lead, arsenic, vanadium, cadmium, and chromium. Other elements like chromium, vanadium, manganese, molybdenum, and selenium also trace elements that affect insulin function. All of these elements enhance insulin action. These elements activate the insulin receptor sites.
20. Daily requirement of calcium for an adult man is:
(a) 300 mg
(b) 600 mg
(c) 400 mg
(d) 800 mg
Ans. (D): 800 MG: The average adult needs 800mg mg of calcium per day.
21. Maize deficit in
(a) Tryptophan
(b) Leucine
(c) Tryptophan and Lysine
(d) None of the above
Ans. (C): Lysine And Tryptophan: Maize protein is deficient in lysine and tryptophan.
22. What is the commonist organism for Urinary Tract Infection?
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Streptococci
(c) Proteus
(d) E.coli
Ans. (D): E Coli: The most common UTIs occur mainly in women and affect the bladder and urethra. Infection of the bladder (cystitis). This type of UTI is usually caused by Escherichia coli (E. coli)
23. What is the immediate nursing intervention for cyanosis of child with Tetralogy of Fallot
(a) Call up the pediatrician
(b) Place her in knee chest position
(c) Administer oxygen inhalation
(d) Transfer her to the PICU
Ans. (B): Place Her In Knee Chest Position: The knee-chest (KC) position is often used for spine surgery. It is considered to promote significant changes in venous return and cardiac output.
24. While assessing a new born for developmental dysplasia of the hip, the nurse would be expected to assess which of the following?
(a) Symmetrical luteal folds
(b) Trendelenburg sign
(c) Ortclani’s sign
(d) Characteristics limp
Ans. (C): OrtolanI’s sign: Ortolani’s maneuver is a test to assess for hip instability. The examiner abducts the thigh and applies gentle pressure forward over the greater trochanter. A “clicking” sensation indicates a dislocated femoral head moving into the acetabulum.
25. An example of a toxoid is the
(a) Rabies vaccine
(b) Diphtheria vaccine
(c) Pertussis vaccine
(d) Measles vaccine
Ans. (B): Diphtheria: Toxoid vaccines use a toxin (harmful product) made by the germ that causes a disease. They create immunity to the parts of the germ that cause a disease instead of the germ itself. That means the immune response is targeted to the toxin instead of the whole germ. example of toxoid vaccine are Diphtheria Tetanus.
26. The vaccine which must be stored in the freezer compartment is:
(a) Polio
(b) BCG
(c) DPT
(d) All of the above
Ans. (A): Polio: OPV. Pack with dry ice. Should be delivered within 3 days. *Should be frozen
27. In India, the Universal Immunization Programme was launched in the year:
(a) 1978
(b) 1985
(c) 1992
(d) 1997
Ans. (B): 1985: Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) is a vaccination programme launched by the Government of India in 1985.
28. The disease subject to International Health Regulation is:
(a) Polio
(b) Malaria
(c) Viral influenza
(d) Plague
Ans. (C): Viral Infuenza: H1N1 influenza (2019–2010) is subject to international health regulation(IHR) .at present covid -19 is IHR.
29. A semipermeable membrane allows the diffusion of
a) Solutes
b) Solvent
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Ans: C–BOTH A AND B:- Semipermeable membrane is a type of biological or synthetic, polymeric membrane that will allow certain molecules or ions to pass through it by osmosis.
30. Which element is constituent of biotin?
a) Calcium
b) Phosphorus
c) Sulphur
d) Magnesium
Ans: C–SULPHUR :-Biotin or nicotinic acid consists of sulphur. it acts as coenzyme needed for protein and fatty acid synthesis.
31. ATP is
a) Adenine triphosphate
b) Adenosine tetraphosphate
c) Adenosine triphosphate
d) Adenine tetraphosphate
Ans: C–ATP (ADENOSIN TRIPHOSPHATE):- Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the source of energy for use and storage at the cellular level.
32. Which one yields the highest energy per gram?
a) Carbohydrate
b) Protein
c) Fat
d) Amino acid
Ans: C–FAT :- Fat provides the most energy of all the macronutrients, at a whopping 9 calories per gram. Carbohydrates and proteins provides 4 cal/gm.
33. Gibberellin is a
a) Sterol
b) Vitamin
c) Sugar
d) Protein
Ans: A–STEROL:- Gibberellic acid-induced germination of hazel seeds was accompanied by little change in the sterol content of the cotyledons.
34. Leydig cells occur in
a) Spleen
b) Lungs
c) Testis
d) Heart
Ans: C–TESTIS:-Leydig cells are the primary source of testosterone or androgens in males.
35. The term vitamin was introduced by
a) Pasteur
b) Funk
c) Priestley
d) Lister
Ans: B–CASIMIR FUNK:-The discovery of the vitamins was a major scientific achievement in our understanding of health and disease. In 1912, Casimir Funk originally coined the term "vitamine".
36. Lungs have a large number of narrow tubes called
a) Alveoli
b) Bronchioles
c) Bronchi
d) Alveolar ducts
Ans: B–Bronchioles:-Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the mid-thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra into a right and left primary bronchi. Each bronchi undergoes repeated divisions to form the secondary and tertiary bronchi and bronchioles ending up in very thin terminal bronchioles. The tracheae, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and initial bronchioles are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings. Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a number of very thin, irregular walled and vascularised bag-like structures called alveoli.
37. Rh factor is named after
a) Monkey
b) Drosophila
c) Rat
d) Man
Ans: A–MONKEY :- Rh antigen, often called the Rh factor, on the cell membranes of the red blood cells (erythrocytes). The designation Rh is derived from the use of the blood of rhesus monkeys in the basic test for determining the presence of the Rh antigen in human blood.
38. Length of female urethra is
a) 15 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 4 cm
d) 2 cm
Ans: C–4 CM:-The female urethra is a shorter structure without a complex structure compared to the male urethra. In women, the urethra is approximately 4–5.1 cm in length.
39. Gout is due to accumulation of
a) Uric acid
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Oxalic acid
d) Lactic acid
Ans: A–URIC ACID:-Gout is caused by a condition known as hyperuricemia, where there is too much uric acid in the body.
40. In cerebrum, auditory area occurs in
a) Frontal lobe
b) Parietal lobe
c) Temporal lobe
d) Occipital lobe
Ans: C–TEMPORAL LOBE:- Temporal lobe: In the cerebrum, the auditory area occurs in the temporal lobe.
41. The receptor organs for sense of hearing are located in
a) Cochlea
b) Utriculus
c) Sacculus
d) Middle ear
Ans: A–COCHLEA:-The organ of Corti, also known as the spiral organ, is the receptor organ for hearing, located in the cochlea.
42. Gland responsible for calcium metabolism is
a) Thymus
b) Thyroid
c) Parathyroid
d) Adrenal
Ans: C–PARATHYROID GLAND:- Parathyroid glands produce parathyroid hormone, which plays a key role in the regulation of calcium levels in the blood.
43. Spleen stores
a) RBCs
b) Lymphocytes
c) Iron
d) All of these
Ans: D–ALL OF THESE
FUNCTIONS OF SPLEEN
Stores blood.
Filters blood by removing cellular waste and getting rid of old or damaged blood cells.
Makes white blood cells and antibodies that help you fight infection.
Maintains the levels of fluid in your body.
Produces antibodies that protect you against infection.
44. Which disease is caused by Protozoa?
a) Common Cold
b) Pneumonia
c) Malaria
d) Cholera
Ans: C–MALARIA:- Protozoa are single-celled organisms that can sometimes cause diseases. Common protozoan diseases include malaria, giardia, and toxoplasmosis.
45. DNA contains
a) Pentose sugar
b) Hexose sugar
c) Erythrose sugar
d) None of these
Ans: A–PENTOSE SUGARS:-The Pentose sugar present in DNA called deoxyribose contains five carbon atoms.
46. Which of the following is not the function of bones?
(a) Provides support and protection to soft tissues and vital organs
(b) Provides attachments for muscles and assists in movement
(c) Storage of proteins and carbohydrates
(d) Blood cells production and mineral homeostasis
Ans: C–Storage of proteins and carbohydrates done in muscles not in bones
Functions of bones are:
Support. Bones provide a framework that supports the body and cradles its soft organs.
Protection. The fused bones of the skill protect the brain.
Anchorage.
Mineral and Growth factor storage.
Blood Cell Formation.
Triglyceride (Fat) storage.
Hormone production.
47. Which of the following would not cause an increase in erythropoietin?
(a) Anemia
(b) High altitude
(c) Polycythemia
(d) Hemorrhage
Ans: C–Polycythemia:Polycythemia vera is a type of blood cancer. It causes your bone marrow to make too many red blood cells.
48. Which of the following would not increase vascular resistance?
(a) Vasodilatation
(b) Polycythemia
(c) Obesity
(d) Dehydration
Ans: A–Vasodilation is a mechanism to enhance blood flow to areas of the body that are lacking oxygen and/or nutrients. The vasodilation causes a decrease in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and an increase in blood flow, resulting in a reduction of blood pressure.
49. The absorption of the fats and glycerol takes place in the
(a) Ileum
(b) Stomach
(c) Large intestine
(d) Lacteals
Ans: A–Ileum :The fats are digested in the form of fatty acids and glycerol. These fatty acids and glycerol and water-insoluble molecules. Their absorption in the small intestines takes place in the form of micelles
50. Which part of the following is called the “seat of intelligence”?
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Diencephalon
Ans: B–The cerebrum sits at the topmost part of the brain and is the source of intellectual activities.