Practice Question GMCH 32 Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam

GMCH 32 Staff Nurse Question

Download and Practice Questions from Previous Year Question Papers of GMCH 32

Candidates preparing for the GMCH Staff Nurse 32 Examination should always glance through the GMCH previous year question papers. It is crucial to know about the type of questions that are asked in the GMCH Staff Nurse/Nursing Officer exam. It is only when you know WHAT is asked in the exam you are targeting helps you to prepare for the exam effectively. For this, the GMCH 32 Previous Year Question Papers are the best source!

Therefore the team of “Nursing Study Material” will try its level best to provide you staff nurse/nursing officer previous years solved papers of ESIC, NORCET, RRB, MNS, CRPF and PGIMER.

1. Acetaminophen toxicity is treated with
(a) N-Acetylecysteine
(b) Naloxane
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Flumazenil
Ans.(A): N ACETYLCYSTINE (MUCOMIST) OR Acetylcysteine:- Is a medication that is used to treat paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose, and to loosen thick mucus in individuals with chronic bronchopulmonary disorders like pneumonia and bronchitis.
2. The drug used in excessive oral/respiratory secretions of the dying is
(a) Glycopyrrolate
(b) Prostigmine
(c) Nicotine
(d) Adrenaline
Ans. (A): GLYCOPYRROLATE:- is used to reduce excessive drooling caused by medical conditions& Reduction of airway or gastric secretions, and volume and acidity of gastric secretions, and blockade of cardiac inhibitory reflexes.
3. In pain management strategies, the least effective approach for using analgesic agent is
(a) Preventive
(b) Prorenata
(c) Balanced analgesia
(d) Patient controlled analgesia
Ans. (A): Preventive :in pain management strategies preventive strategies is least effective approach and remain are pain reduce approaches
4. The Kubler-Ross stages of dying DOES NOT include
(a) Anger
(b) Acceptance
(c) Bargaining
(d) Refusal
Ans. (D): REFUSAL:- The stages of the Kubler-Ross theory include denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.(Remember mnemonic DABDA).
5. Regarding muscarinic receptors, which one of the following is NOT TRUE?
(a) Stimulated by adrenaline
(b) Activation inhibits heart
(c) Excites smooth muscle
(d) Activated by acetylcholine
Ans. (A): STIMULATED BY ADRENALIN: Muscarinic receptors stimulated by acetylcholine, decreases hr excites smooth muscles & adrenalin stimulates alpha and beta receptors
6. The “fight or flight” response includes all the following EXCEPT:
(a) Increase in blood pressure
(b) Increase in salivary secretion
(c) Glycogenolysis
(d) Cessation of bladder and bowel activity
Ans. (B): INCREASE IN SALIVARY SECRETION: flight -fight response of our body is follows
 Acceleration of heart and lung action
 Paling or flushing, or alternating between both
 Inhibition of stomach and upper-intestinal action to the point where digestion slows down or stops
 General effect on the sphincters of the body
 Constriction of blood vessels in many parts of the body
 Liberation of metabolic energy sources (particularly fat and glycogen) for muscular action
 Dilation of blood vessels for muscles
 Inhibition of the lacrimal gland (responsible for tear production) and salivation.
 Dilation of pupil (mydriasis)
 Relaxation of bladder
 Inhibition of erection
 Auditory exclusion (loss of hearing)
 Tunnel vision (loss of peripheral vision)
 Disinhibition of spinal reflexes
 Shaking.
7. In order to be able to provide independent care for oneself, the minimum level of the spinal cord is
(a) C4
(b) C5
(c) C6
(d) C7
Ans. (A): C4: Quadriplegia or tetraplegia — paralysis in the hands, arms, torso, and legs; Bladder or bowel function issues; Loss of control of the abdominal and intercostal muscles in the torso, eliminating the ability to cough or sneeze
8. A lesion in the occipital lobe of cerebrum affects
(a) Vision
(b) Speech
(c) Hearing
(d) Personality
Ans. (A): Vision:
The occipital lobe is the back part of the brain that is involved with vision.
9. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of upper motor neuron lesion?
(a) Muscle atrophy
(b) Spasticity
(c) Hyperreflexia
(d) Babinski sign
Ans. (A): Muscle Atrophy:- damage to UMN's leads to a characteristic set of clinical symptoms known as the upper motor neuron syndrome. These symptoms can include weakness, spasticity, clonus, and hyperreflexia.A patient with an upper motor neuron disease will exhibit: weakness with minimal associated atrophy (atrophy may be absent).
10. Hamstring muscles are
(a) Tensor fascia lata, Biceps femoris, Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus
(b) Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus, Biceps femoris, Adductor magnus
(c) Biceps femoris, Adductor magnus, Gracilis, Sernitendinosus
(d) Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus, Gracilis, Adductor magnus
Ans. (B): Semitendinosus, and semimembranosus, biceps femoris adductor magnus :Hamstring muscles are skeletal muscles at the back of your thigh.You use them to walk, climb stairs, do squats and perform many other leg movements.
11. In radial tunnel syndrome, the nerve entrapped is
(a) Anterior interosseous nerve
(b) Posterior interosseous nerve
(c) Axillary nerve
(d) Radial nerve
Ans. (D): Radial Nerve: Radial tunnel syndrome occurs when the radial nerve is pinched or compressed as it enters the radial tunnel. This creates unwanted pressure on your radial nerve, often causing nagging pain.
12. Colour coding for Nitrous oxide cylinder is
(a) Black
(b) Black with white
(c) French blue
(d) Grey
Ans. (C): French Blue: N2O compressed-gas cylinders are color-coded blue internationally.
13. Which of the following symptoms is the indicator of imminent death?
(a) A weak, slow pulse
(b) Increased muscle tone
(c) Fixed, dilated pupils
(d) Slow, shallow respirations
Ans. (C):fixed, dilated pupils: They stated that both pupils must be fixed and lack a light reflex and that the diameter should be ≥4 mm to qualify as brain death.
14. What is the most common client position used for administer a cleansing enema?
(a) Lithotomy position
(b) Supine position
(c) Prone position
(d) Sim’s left lateral
Ans. (D):Sims' position: Is usually used for rectal examination, treatments, enemas, and examining women for vaginal wall prolapse.
15. During the physical examination of a young child, what is the earliest sign of xerosis that may observe?
(a) Keratoalacia
(b) Comeal opacity
(c) Night blindness
(d) Conjunctival xerosis
Ans. (D): Conjunctival xerosis: Is usually bilateral and reflects severe conjunctival and dryness. It is a sign of long-standing vitamin A deficiency . is the earliest sign of xerosis that may observe in patient.
16. A nurse’s highest priority for a client who has returned to the nursing unit at nephrectomy is
(a) Hourly urine output
(b) Temperature
(c) Able to turn side to side
(d) Able to sips clear liquid
Ans. (A): Hourly Urine Output:- If urine output is <30ml/hour, inform member of medical team where renal perfusion may get impaired and lead to renal impairment.
17. A male client with a history of cirrhosis and alcoholism is admitted with consulting from ascites. The ascites is most likely the result of increase
(a) Pressure in the portal vein
(b) Production of serum albumin
(c) Secretion of bile salts
(d) Interstitial osmotic pressure
Ans. (A):pressure in the portal vein: The decrease in liver function combines with portal hypertension to cause ascites symptoms. Portal hypertension is high pressure in the portal vein that delivers blood to your liver.
18. Gomez classification is based on retardation of
(a) Weight
(b) Height
(c) Both height and weight
(d) All of the above
Ans. (A): Weight: Gomez classification One of the earliest systems for classifying protein‐energy malnutrition in children, based on percentage of expected weight for age: over 90% is normal, 76–90% is mild (first degree) malnutrition, 61–75% is moderate (second degree) malnutrition and less than 60% is severe (third degree).
19. The minimum iodine content of salt at consumer level should be
(a) 10 ppm
(b) 15 ppm
(c) 30 ppm
(d) 40 ppm
Ans. (B): 15ppm: He WHO/UNICEF/ICCIDD recommends that the salt iodine content at the consumer level should be 15ppm.
20. The risk of stomach cancer has been related to the deficiency of
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Cobalt
(d) Nickel
Ans. (B): VITAMIN D: Vitamin D deficiency (VDd) has been associated with a multitude of gastrointestinal malignancies. It affects multiple cellular processes such as inhibiting differentiation, metastasis, proliferation and inducing apoptosis and cell cycle arrest. All these mechanisms support vitamin D's anti-cancer role.
21. Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in the year:
(a) 1954
(b) 1977
(c) 1985
(d) 1997
Ans. (A): 1954: The Prevention Of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 (Amended in 1964, 1976, 1986) The Act provides the protection from adulteration / contamination of food that may lead to the health risk of consumers.
22. Salt intake as per Dietary Goals should be reduced to an average of not more than:
(a) 5 grams per day
(b) 10 grams per day
(c) 15 grams per day
(d) 20 grams per day
Ans. (A): 5 grams per day: Adults should aim to consume no more than one teaspoon (5 grams) of salt a day . to reduce HTN, cardiovascular problems.
23. An example for second generation Intra Uterine Device is:
(a) Lippes loop
(b) T-Cu-380 A
(c) Progestasert
(d) Levonorgestrel
Ans. (B): T-CU -380 A: The second-generation IUDs include the Nova-T (Noncard) and multiload 250.
24. The commonest complaint of women fitted with an Intra Uterine Device is
(a) Vaginal Bleeding
(b) Pain
(c) Pelvic infection
(d) Uterine perforation
Ans. (A): Vaginal Bleeding: Common IUD side effects include: irregular bleeding for several months. lighter or shorter periods or no periods at all.
25. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE regarding fluid volume deficient
(a) Acute loss of 0.5 kg of body weight represents 500 ml of fluid less
(b) A postural hypotension of 15 mm Hg indicates fluid volume deficit
(c) Evaluation of tongue turgor is more valid than skin turgor
(d) Urine specific gravity is 1.010
Ans. (D): Urine Specific Gravity Is 1.010: The normal range for urine specific gravity is 1.005 to 1.030. in fluid volume deficit urine specific gravity increases, it wont be in with in normal range.
26. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE about bedsores?
(a) 6 hrs of pressure on skin can lead to bed sore
(b) Active shifting of weight every 15 minutes can prevent bed sore
(c) Redened areas of skin should be gently massaged
(d) Semi-inclined posture should be avoided
Ans. (C): Reddened Areas Of Skin Should Be Gently Massaged: Avoid direct massage to a reddened skin area, because massage can damage the capillary beds and cause tissue necrosis.
27. In the care of polytrauma patients, the duty of nursing staff includes all of the --- EXCEPT
(a) Ensuring intravenous access
(b) Administering prescribed medication
(c) Collecting laboratory specimen
(d) Consent for emergency surgery
Ans. (D): Consent for emergency surgery: Consent for emergency should be taken by physician ,and nurse ensures that the patient or patient attenders got through explanation about surgery by doctor.
28. Proximate principles include all except
(a) Proteins
(b) Fats
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Vitamins
Ans. (D): Vitamins: Protein, fat and carbohydrates are referred to as proximate principles. They are oxidized in the body to yield energy which the body needs.
29. Daily requirement of Vitamin C for an adult man is
(a) 40 mg
(b) 60 mg
(c) 80 mg
(d) 150 mg
Ans. (C): 80 mg: The recommended daily amount for vitamin C is 75 milligrams (mg) a day for women and 90 mg a day for men (approximately 80mg).
30. The WHO cut off points for the diagnosis of anaemia in pregnant adult women is
(a) 10 gm%
(b) 11 gm%
(c) 12 gm%
(d) 13 gm%
Ans. (A): 10gm%: A hemoglobin (Hb) 11 g/dL or hematocrit of <33% can be considered for diagnosis of anemia in pregnancy.
31. La Bella indifference is related to
(a) Body dysmorphic disorder
(b) Pain disorder
(c) Somatization disorder
(d) Conversion disorder
Ans. (D): Conversion disorder: La belle indifference is defined as a paradoxical absence of psychological distress despite having a serious medical illness or symptoms related to a health condition. This commonly seen in conversion disorder .
32. Emotion can be best expressed through
(a) Gesture
(b) Language
(c) Posture
(d) All of the above
Ans. (D): All Of The Above: Emotions can be expressed through gesture, language and posture.
33. Which of the following delusions common in depression?
(a) Delusion of Nihilism
(b) Delusion of poverty
(c) Delusion of persecution
(d) All of the above
Ans. (A): Delusion of nilhilism: It is a delusional belief of being dead, decomposed or annihilated, having lost one's own internal organs or even not existing entirely as a human being. seen in depression.
34. A psychiatric illusion may be manifested by all of the following, except
(a) Impairment in pre-existing functioning
(b) Impoverishment of feelings
(c) Disturbance in behavior
(d) Unpopular beliefs
Ans. (D): Unpopular Beliefs: Illusion Is Wrong Perception With Reality.
35. Rorschach’s projective test is designed to measure
(a) Unconscious intensions
(b) Dreams
(c) Conscious desires
(d) Brain size
Ans. (A): Unconscious Intentions: Rorschach Inkblot Test: A projective personality test using inkblots by dropping ink onto paper and then folding the paper in half to create a symmetrical image.
36. Autonomic dysreflexia occurs in
(a) Spinal cord injury above T6
(b) Phantom limb syndrome
(c) Complex regional pain syndrome
(d) Sudek’s osteodystrophy
Ans. (A): Spinal Cord Injury Above T6: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that emerges after a spinal cord injury, usually when the damage has occurred above the T6 level.
37. In side lying position a patient is not able to abduct his hip. The power to his abductors is:
(a) Grade I
(b) Grade 2
(c) Less than grade 3
(d) Grade 3
Ans. (C): LESS THEN GRADE 3: In side lying position a patient is not able to abduct his hip may categorised in less then grade 3.
38. A motor vehicle accident victim has open fracture of right leg, severe pain in neck, grade II shock. A trauma surgeon should
(a) Apply compression dressing to leg
(b) Transfuse one bottle of blood
(c) Post for debridement of leg wound
(d) Order CT scans of cervical spine
Ans. (D): Order Ct Scans Of Cervical Spine: To Rule Out Spinal Cord Injury Is Very Important In Accidents.
39. A 30 year old man has a swelling in the lower radius. X-ray shows a very translucent faintly loculated lesion expanding the end of the bone, abutting against the articular surface and lined with a thin cortex without periosteal reaction. The can most likely diagnosis is
(a) Simple bone cyst
(b) Chondroblastoma
(c) Giant cell tumour of bone
(d) Aneursmal bone cyst
Ans. (C): Giant cell tumour of bone: In x-ray if radius shows a very translucent faintly loculated lesion expanding the end of the bone, abutting against the articular surface and lined with a thin cortex without periosteal reaction.
40. When the middle slip of the extensor tendon is cut there is
(a) No deformity
(b) Swan-neck deformity
(c) Button-hole deformity (boutonniere)
(d) Mallet finger deformity
Ans. (C): Button hole deformity (boutonniere): Middle slip of the extensor tendon injury may lead to Inability to straighten the fingers or extend the wrist. Pain and swelling in fingertip. Recent tvrauma or laceration to the hand. Drooping of the end joint of the finger.
41. In anterior interosseous nerve injury, there is
(a) Defective pinch
(b) Sensory loss over lateral 3 ½ fingers
(c) Abduction of thumb is weak
(d) Clawing of lateral 3 fingers
Ans. (C): Abduction Of Thumb Is Weak: In a pure lesion of the anterior interosseous nerve there is weakness of the long flexor muscle of the thumb (Flexor pollicis longus).
42. Plaster of Paris is:
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Calcium phospahte
(c) Calcium sulphate
(d) Calcium citrate
Ans. (C): Calcium Sulphate: Plaster of Paris is a quick-setting gypsum plaster made from a fine white calcium sulphate hemihydrate powder that hardens when moistened and dried.
43. The appropriate initial treatment of a chemical burn in
(a) Lavage with water
(b) Neutralize the chemical
(c) Apply the prescribed topical agent
(d) Wrap the patient in sterile sheets
Ans. (B): Neutralize The Chemical: Rinse the affected area continuously with clean water as soon as possible to neutralize the chemicals and reduce the damage of body tissue .
44. Excess of vitamin K in a new born cause which of the following condition
(a) Bleeding tendencies
(b) Hyperbilirubinimia
(c) Vomiting
(d) Haemolysis
Ans. (B): Hyperbilirubinemia: The effects of vitamin K toxicity can include jaundice in newborns, hemolyticanemia, and hyperbilirubinemia.
45. Which of the following drug has the highest toxicity to a child?
(a) Salbutamol
(b) Paracetamol
(c) Oral contraceptives
(d) Tricyclic antidepressants
Ans. (D): Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA): Tricyclic Anti Depressantsare one of the common causes of a fatal drug overdose. They have a narrow therapeutic window so can be fatal at relatively lower doses.Its most serious effects are cardiovascular and CNS instability.
46. A complete loss of language comprehension or production is called
(a) Dysfluency
(b) Aphasia
(c) Dyspraxia
(d) Dysphasia
Ans. (B): Aphasia: Aphasia is a condition that affects your ability to communicate. It can affect your speech, as well as the way you write and understand both spoken and written language. Aphasia typically occurs suddenly after a stroke or a head injury.
47. Compulsive eating of substance other than food is called
(a) Ritolicha
(b) Pica
(c) Over eating disorder
(d) Trichotillomania
Ans. (B): PICA: Pica is a compulsive eating disorder in which people eat nonfood items. Dirt, clay, and flaking paint are the most common items eaten. Less common items include glue, hair, cigarette ashes, and feces.
48. Brucella abortus infects primarily
(a) Goat
(b) Sheep
(c) Cattle
(d) Pig
Ans. (C): Cattle are the usual hosts for Brucella abortus. This organism also causes brucellosis in bison, water buffalo, camels and elk, and occasionally affects other species.
49. Case fatality rate in Japanese Encephalitis is:
(a) less than 10%
(b) between 10-20%
(c) between 20-40%
(d) between 40-60%
Ans. (A): Less than 10%: Case-fatality rates range from 0.3% to 60% in Japanese encephalitis.
50. Chickungunya fever is transmitted by the mosquito species
(a) Aedes
(b) Culex
(c) Mansonia
(d) Anopheles
Ans. (A): AEDES: Chikungunya virus is primarily transmitted to people through the bite of an infected mosquito, mainly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus.

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