We were getting a lot of emails from nursing aspirants who are preparing for various nursing competitive exams including RRB Staff Nurse Recruitment exam to compile the practice questions for upcoming RRB Staff Nurse Exam. Therefore considering the request our team of nursing tutors had tried to provide you with the best practice questions for RRB staff nurse exam.
1. Which of the following is not considered as Metaparadigm of nursing?
(a) Person
(b) Environment
(c) Nursing
(d) Diagnosis
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Diagnosis: The four metaparadigms of nursing include person, environment, health, and nursing. The metaparadigm of person focuses on the patient who is the recipient of care.
2. Which of the following is considered as a example of intentional tort?
(a) Malpractice
(b) Negligence
(c) Breach of duly
(d) False imprisonment
Ans. & Sol. (d) - False imprisonment: intentional torts arewrongful acts done on purpose. Common intentional torts are battery, assault, false imprisonment, trespass to land, trespass to chattels, and intentional infliction of emotional distress.
3. Which of the following clinical findings indicates that the patient is experiencing hypokalemia?
(a) Edema
(b) Muscle spasms
(c) Kussaumal breathing
(d) Abdominal distention
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Abdominal distension :Hypokalemia is a serum potassium level lower than 3.5 mEq/L (3.5 mmol/L). In hypokalemia gastro intestinal disturbances like decreased motility, hypoactive to absent bowel sounds, nausea, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distension & paralytic ileus can be seen.
4. A patient is wearing a soft wrist-safety device. Which of the following nursing assessment is considered abnormal?
(a) Palpable radical pulse
(b) Palpable ulnar pulse
(c) Capillary refill within 3 seconds
(d) Bluish fingernails, cool and pale finger
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Bluish finger nails ,cool and pale finger: it means wrist-safety device causing neurovascular impairment which may show decreasing tissue perfusion of the symptoms
5. The nurse is instructing a group of volunteer nurses on the technique of administering the BCG vaccine. What method should the nurse teach the group to administer the vaccine correctly?
(a) Z-track injection
(b) Intravenous injection
(c) Subcutaneous injection
(d) Intradermal scratch injection
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Intra dermal scratch injection : The BCG vaccine route is an Intradermal (ID) injection .the BCG vaccine is a vaccine generally used to prevent tuberculosis., given dose of 0.05ml at birth.
6. A client is to receive 2000 ml of I.V. fluids in 12 hours. The drop factor is 10 gtt/ml. At how many drops per minute should the flow rate be set?
(a) 22 drops/min
(b) 24 drops/min
(c) 26 drops/min
(d) 28 drops/min
Ans. & Sol. (d) - 28 DROPS: USE the intravenous rate formula
Drops per minute = Total volume X Drop factor /time in minutes
2000X10/720 = 27.77 (28 drops)
7. Tube feeding should be delayed if the amount of gastric content exceeds
(a) 20 ml
(b) 25 ml
(c) 30 ml
(d) 50 ml
Ans. & Sol. (d) - 50ml :If the residual amount is more than 100 ml withhold the feeding if 50 ml residual amount is tr just delay for 30 min and can start again.
8. In the absence of pathology, client respiratory centre is stimulated by
(a) Oxygen
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Calcium ion
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Carbon dioxide: If CO2 levels increase, the respiratory centre( medulla and pons) is stimulated to increase the rate and depth of breathing. This increases the rate of CO2, removal and returns concentrations to normal resting levels.
9. In Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), what kind of immunity is lost?
(a) Active immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Humoral immunity
(d) Cellular immunity
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Cellular immunity: HIV invades various immune cells (e.g., CD4+ T cells and monocytes) resulting in a decline in CD4+ T cell numbers below the critical level, and loss of cell-mediated immunity − therefore, the body becomes progressively more susceptible to opportunistic infections and cancer.
10. Which one of the chronic conditions contraindicates the use of ice on sprained ankle?
(a) Gastritis
(b) Diabetes
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Osteoporosis
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Diabetes: Putting ice on injured tissue shuts off the blood supply that brings in healing cells. use on ice contraindicates in following conditions
• Deep vein thrombosis.
• Peripheral vascular disease.
• Open wound.
• Skin sensation impairment (e.g. some diabetic patients)
• Severe cognitive impairment (e.g. dementia patients)
Cold allergy.
11. Thorocentesis is useful in treating all pulmonary disorders, except:
(a) Haemothorax
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Hydrothorax
(d) Empyema
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Empyema:empyema means pockets of pus that have collected inside a body cavity physician may prescribes antibiotics to get rid of the infection and use a chest tube to drain the pus.
12. Absence of an informed consent while performing a procedure on patient can lead to which of the following charges?
(a) Fraud
(b) Assault and battery
(c) Harassment
(d) Breach of confidentiality
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Assault And Battery: Assault occurs when a person puts another person in fear of a harmful or offensive contact. The victim fears and believes that harm will result because of the threat. Battery is an intentional touching of another’s body without the other’s consent.
13. Process of formal negotiations on working conditions between a group of nurses and employer is
(a) Grievance
(b) Arbitration
(c) Collective bargaining
(d) Strike
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Collective bargaining: Collective bargaining is a formalized decisionmaking process between representatives of management and representative of labor to negotiate wages and conditions of employment.
14. Allen’s test checks the patency of the
(a) Ulnar artery (b) Radial artery
(c) Carotid artery (d) Brachial artery
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Radial artery : The Allen test is used to assess collateral blood flow to the hands, generally in preparation for a procedure that has the potential to disrupt blood flow in either the radial or the ulnar artery.
15. Needle Stick Safety and Prevention Act was passed in
(a) November, 2000
(b) December, 1998
(c) November, 2002
(d) April, 2010
Ans. & Sol. (a) - NOVEMBER 2000: The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act (NSPA) was signed into law in November 2000
16. What instructions should be given to the client before undergoing a paracentaisis?
(a) NPO 12 hrs before procedure
(b) Empty bladder before procedure
(c) Strict bed rest following procedure
(d) Empty bowel before procedure
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Empty bladder before procedure: Paracentesis is a procedure that removes fluid (peritoneal fluid) from the abdomen through a slender needle. The needle may do injury to the full bladder so need to instruct void it before starting procedure.
17. Application of force to another person without lawful justification is
(a) Battery
(b) Negligence
(c) Tort
(d) Crime
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Battery: The battery in law can be defined as the use of force against one person causing him harm or injury without any lawful justification.
18. Colour coding for nitrous oxide cylinder is
(a) Black
(b) Black with white shoulder
(c) French Blue
(d) Gray
Ans. & Sol. (c) - French blue: The color-coding of the shoulder of the medical nitrous oxide cylinder is blue.
19. Principle of good mechanics includes
(a) Keeping the knees in locked position
(b) Maintaining the wide base of support and bending at the knee
(c) Bending at the waist to maintain a centre of gravity
(d) Holding objects away from the body for improved leverage
Ans. & Sol. (b) - maintain a wide base of support& bending at the knee: The four principles of body mechanics are:
• maintain a proper center of gravity. Bending and lifting with the legs and keeping your back straight.
• maintain a wide base of support. keeping your feet at least 12 inches apart, with one foot slightly ahead of the other.
• maintain proper alignment.
• maintain proper posture.
20. Control of spread of disease is an example of which level of prevention?
(a) Primary intervention
(b) Secondary intervention
(c) Tertiary intervention
(d) Nursing intervention
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Tertiary prevention: Tertiary prevention involves the prevention of complications in people who have already developed disease, and in whom disease prevention is no longer an option.
21. A client with multiple trauma is admitted in ortho unit. The client has a leg fracture and had a plaster cast applied. The best position of casted leg is:
(a) Elevated leg for 3 hours and keep the leg at level for half an hour
(b) Elevated leg for 6 hour put in flat position for one hour
(c) Elevated leg continued for 24-48 hours
(d) Keep the leg in a level position
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours: A casted extremity is elevated continuously for the first 24 to 48 hours to minimize swelling and promote venous drainage.
22. A nurse is evaluating the status of the client who had craniotomy 3 days ago. The nurse would suspect that the client is developing meningitis as a complication of surgery if the client exhibits
(a) A negative kerning sign
(b) Absence of nuccal rigidity
(c) A positive bruzinski sign
(d) A Glasgow coma scale score
Ans. & Sol. (c) - A positive Brudzinski’s sign: Signs of meningeal irritation compatible with meningitis include nuchal rigidity, a positive Brudzinski’s sign, and positive Kernig’s sign. Nuchal rigidity is characterized by a stiff neck and soreness, which is especially noticeable when the neck is flexed.
23. The client is diagnosed with disorder involving the inner ear. Which of the following is the most common complaint associated with a disorder involving this part of the ear?
(a) Pruritus
(b) Tinnitus
(c) Hearing loss
(d) Burning in the ear
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Tinnitus: Tinnitus is the most common complaint of clients with otological problems, especially problems involving the inner ear. Symptoms of tinnitus range from mild ringing in the ear, which can go unnoticed during the day, to a loud roaring in the ear, which can interfere with the client’s thinking process and attention span.
24. Morphine is contraindicated in
(a) Angina
(b) Bronchial asthma
(c) Pancreatitis
(d) Myocardial infarction
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Bronchial Asthma: Morphine sulfate is contraindicated in patients with acute or severe bronchial asthma or hypercarbia & paralytic ileus. morphine, can directly activate the release of histamine, and histamine elicits the allergic response that causes itching and hives.
25. Objectives for treating diabetic ketoacidosis includes administration of which of the following treatments?
(a) Glucagon
(b) Blood product
(c) Glucocorticoids
(d) Insulin and I.V. fluid
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Insulin & I.V fluids : To keep blood glucose levels as close to normal as safely possible & Replacement of fluids either orally or intravenously very important to maintain adequate hydration.
26. A client with Myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardiac, shows signs of air hunger and begins coughing frothy, pink tinged sputum. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate when auscultation the client’s breathing sounds?
(a) Stridor
(b) Crackles
(c) Scattered rhonchi
(d) Diminished breath
Ans. & Sol. (b) - crackles:Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles.
27. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the client understands the information if the client reports which of the following early signs of exacerbation?
(a) Fever
(b) Fatigue
(c) Wightloss
(d) Shortness of breath
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Shortness of breath: Dry cough and dyspnea are typical early manifestations of pulmonary sarcoidosis. late manifestations include night sweats ,fever ,weight loss and skin nodules.
28. A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. A nurse must assess most commonly reported symptom
(a) Hot, flushed feeling
(b) Sudden chills and fever
(c) Chest pain that occurs suddenly
(d) Dysponea when deep breaths are taken
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Chest pain that occurs suddenly: The most common initial symptom in pulmonary embolism is chest pain that is sudden in onset. The next most commonly reported symptom is dyspnea, which is accompanied by an increased respiratory rate. Other typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include apprehension and restlessness, tachycardia, cough, and cyanosis.
29. A nurse is suctioning fluids from client via a tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of
(a) 1 minute (b) 5 seconds
(c) 10 seconds (d) 3 seconds
Ans. & Sol. (c) - 10 seconds :The nurse must preoxygenate the client before suctioning and limit the suctioning pass to 10 seconds.
30. A nurse instructs a client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing. Purpose of this pursed-lip breathing is to
(a) Promote oxygen intake
(b) Strengthen the diaphragm
(c) Strengthen the inter costal muscles
(d) Promote carbon dioxide elimination
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Promote carbon dioxide elimination: pursed-lip breathing helps support breathing by the opening of the airways during exhalation and increasing excretion of volatile acids in the form of carbon dioxide preventing or relieving hypercapnia.
31. An emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of the signs would indicate the presence of pneumothorax in this client?
(a) A low respiratory rate
(b) Diminished breath sound
(c) The presence of a barrel chest
(d) A sucking sound at the site of injury
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Diminished breath sounds: This client has sustained a blunt or closed-chest injury. Basic symptoms of a closed pneumothorax are shortness of breath and chest pain. A larger pneumothorax may cause tachypnoea, cyanosis, diminished breath sounds, and subcutaneous emphysema. Hyper-resonance also may occur on the affected side.
32. The client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The murse plans to teach the client to avoid which action, because it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia?
(a) Lying recumbent following meal
(b) Taking in small, frequent, bland diet
(c) Raising the head of bed on 6 inch blocks
(d) Taking h2-receptor antagonist medication
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Lying recumbent following meals : Hiatal hernia is caused by a protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm where the esophagus usually is positioned. The client usually experiences pain from reflux caused by ingestion of irritating foods, lying flat following meals or at night, and eating large or fatty meals.
33. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client knowing that this client is a trisk for which vitamin deficiency?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin E
Ans. & Sol. (b) - vitamin B12: Chronic gastritis causes deterioration and atrophy of the lining of the stomach, leading to the loss of the function of the parietal cells. The source of the intrinsic factor is lost, which results in the inability to absorb vitamin B12. This leads to the development of pernicious anaemia.
34. The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis. Where should the nurse anticipate the location of the pain?
(a) Right lower quadrant radiating to neck
(b) Right lower quadrant radiating to umbilicus
(c) Right upper quadrant radiating to left scapula and shoulder
(d) Right upper quadrant radiating to right scapula and shoulder
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Right upper quadrant radiating to right scapula and shoulder:Epigastric pain that radiates to the right shoulder or scapula Pain localized in the right upper quadrant and triggered by a high-fat or high-volume meal Guarding, rigidity, and rebound tenderness Mass palpated in the right upper quadrant Murphy’s sign (cannot take a deep breath when the examiner’s fingers are passed below the hepatic margin because of pain.
35. Which type of catheter is generally used for the client with urine retention?
(a) Coude
(b) Indwelling
(c) Straight
(d) Three way
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Indwelling :Indwelling catheters, also known as Foley catheters, remain in the bladder once inserted, either via the urethra or the abdomen (suprapubic catheterization).used for retention.
36. Negribodies found in hippocampus ae the diagnostic signs of
(a) Rabies
(b) Measles
(c) Rubella
(d) Diphtheria
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Rabies: Negri bodies are eosinophilic, sharply outlined, pathognomonic inclusion bodies (2–10 μm in diameter) found in the cytoplasm of certain nerve cells containing the virus of rabies, especially in pyramidal cells within Ammon's horn of the hippocampus.
37. What is Odynophagia?
(a) Difficulty in swallowing
(b) Pain during swallowing
(c) Unable to swallow
(d) Regurgitation
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Pain During Swallowing : “Odynophagia” is the medical term for painful swallowing. Pain can be felt in your mouth, throat, or oesophagus.
38. Signs of pulmonary consolidation are all except
(a) Dullness
(b) Increased fremitus
(c) Egophny
(d) Cystic fibrosis
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Cystic Fibrosis: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an inherited disorder that causes severe damage to the lungs, digestive system and other organs in the body.
39. Which of the following is not a investigation for dysphagia?
(a) Barium swallows
(b) Endoscopy
(c) Manometry
(d) Colonoscopy
Ans. & Sol. (d) - COLONOSCOPY : Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing — taking more time and effort to move food or liquid from your mouth to your stomach. A colonoscopy is an exam used to detect changes or abnormalities in the large intestine (colon) and rectum.
40. Which of the following signs and symptoms would represent an early manifestation of Laryngeal cancer?
(a) Stomatitis
(b) Air way obstruction
(c) Hoarseness
(d) Dysphasia
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Hoarseness:Hoarseness, voice changes and a persistent sore throat are all early signs of laryngeal cancer. Laryngeal cancers that form on the vocal cords (glottis) often cause hoarseness or a change in the voice.
41. The process that transmits impulses towards the cell body is
(a) Axon
b) Myelin
(c) Cell body
(d) Dendrites
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Dendrites :Dendritestransmit impulses from synapses to the cell body.
42. Circumstantiality is a disorder of
(a) Mood
(b) Affect
(c) Behaviour
(d) Thinking
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Thinking :Circumstantiality is one of several types of thought disorders. It's when you include a lot of unnecessary and insignificant details in your conversation or writing. This takes away from the main point of what you're saying.
43. Delusion is a disorder of
(a) Thought
(b) Cognition
(c) Perception
(d) Insight
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Thought: Delusionin which a person cannot tell what is real from what is imagined. it unshakable beliefs in something untrue.
44. Withdrawal of the child into self and into a fantasy world of his or her own creation is
(a) Mental retardation
(b) Conduct disorder
(c) Autistic disorder
(d) ADHD
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Autistic disorder:Autism spectrum disorder is a condition related to brain development that impacts how a person perceives and socializes with others, causing problems in social interaction and communication.
45. Pavlov’s experiments is an example of
(a) Classical conditioning
(b) Modelling
(c) Learned helplessness
(d) Operant conditioning
Ans. & Sol. (a) - classical conditioning :The most famous example of classical conditioning was Ivan Pavlov's experiment with dogs, who salivated in response to a bell tone.
46. Drug of choice for treatment of alcohol withdrawl is
(a) Diazepam
(b) Phenelzine
(c) Amitryptiline
(d) Sodium valporate
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Diazepam : Benzodiazepines (BZD) are the mainstay of treatment in alcohol withdrawal. Diazepam is benzodiazepine drug.
47. Which drug is CNS stimulant?
(a) Cocaine
(b) Chlorodizepoxide
(c) Phenobarbital
(d) Meperidine
Ans. & Sol. (a) - cocaine:Cocaine is a powerfully addictive stimulant drug made from the leaves of the coca plant native to South America.
48. Social skill training becomes one of the most widely used psychosocial interventions in the treatment of
(a) Mania
(b) Eating disorder
(c) Delirium
(d) Schizophrenia
Ans. & Sol. (d) - schizophrenia: Cognitive behavioral therapy, also known as CBT, may be a treatment option for people with schizophrenia. CBT teaches a person to modify beliefs or behaviors that may be leading to negative emotions.
49. Extreme salivation is the side effect of
(a) Alprazolam
(b) Duloxetine
(c) Isocarbaxazid
(d) Clozapine
Ans. & Sol. (d) - clozapine: Hypersalivation clozapine may produce an increase in salivation. This should be considered before giving the drug to patients who have difficulty handling secretions.
50. Disturbance of consciousness and change in cognition that develops rapidly over a short period is
(a) Delirium
(b) Dementia
(c) Delusion
(d) Illusion
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Delirium : Delirium is a serious disturbance in mental abilities that results in confused thinking and reduced awareness of the environment. clouding of consciousness is seen in delirium.