Practice Question for PGIMER Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam 2020

Practice Question for PGIMER Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam

In order to pass the upcoming PGIMER Staff Nurse Recruitment Examination, nursing candidates should note that it requires consistent practice and dedicated effort. The PGIMER Staff Nurse Recruitment Practice Question Papers help to uncover areas for improvement so that you can overcome any obstacles and create a concrete and solid foundation for the PGIMER Recruitment Exam for Nursing Officer.

The PGIMER Staff Nurse Practice Question Set is very informative and important to realize the level of difficulty of the exam so that you can prepare it well. The PGIMER Staff Nursing Practice Online Questions are also helpful in giving useful information about the areas on which you have 100 percent hold so that you can focus more on them while trying out the paper.

1. Nurse’s ability to be open, honest and real in interaction with client is called
(a) Empathy
(b) Warmth
(c) Genuineness
(d) Respect
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Genuiness :If you describe a person as genuine, you approve of them because they are honest, truthful, and sincere in the way they live and in their relationships with other people.
2. The junction between two neurone is called
(a) Synapse
(b) Presynaptic neurone
(c) Synaptic cleft
(d) Dendrites
Ans. & Sol. (a) - synapse:.synapse, also called neuronal junction, the site of transmission of electric nerve impulses between two nerve cells (neurons) or between a neuron and a gland or muscle cell (effector).
3. Delusion of nihilism and early morning insomnia are characteristic features of
(a) Major depression
(b) Mania
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) Personality disorders potential
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Major depression: Depression is a mood disorder that causes a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest and can interfere with your daily functioning.
4. In Freudian theory, Oedipus complex is seen in which stage of psychosexual development
(a) Anal
(b) Genital
(c) Phallic
(d) Latency
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Phallic stage: The Oedipus complex is a theory of Sigmund Freud, and occurs during the Phallic stage of psychosexual development. It involves a boy, aged between 3 and 6, becoming unconsciously sexually attached to his mother, and hostile towards his father (who he views as a rival).
5. Purpose of therapeutic communication is to
(a) Develop a friendly social relationship with the patient
(b) Develop parental authoritarian relationship with the patient
(c) Develop a helping, purposeful relationship with the patient
(d) Develop cool business like relationship with the patient
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Develop A Helping ,Purposeful Relationship With The Patient:A therapeutic nurse-patient relationship is defined as a helping relationship that's based on mutual trust and respect, the nurturing of faith and hope, being sensitive to self and others, and assisting with the gratification of your patient's physical, emotional, and spiritual needs through your knowledge and skill.
6. The defense mechanism most frequently demonstrated by the chemically dependent person is
(a) Undoing
(b) Denial
(c) Rationalization
(d) Reaction formation
Ans. & Sol. (b) - Denial :Denial is a type of defense mechanism that involves ignoring the reality of a situation to avoid anxiety.
7. False perception without external stimulus is
(a) Illusion
(b) Delirium
(c) Hallucination
(d) Delusion
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Hallucination: false perception without external stimuli is called Hallucination. it seen 5 types,visual hallucination, auditory hallucination,olfactory hallucination, gustatory hallucination, tactile hallucination.
8. Phobia is
(a) Psychosis
(b) Anxiety
(c) Fear of animal
(d) Neurosis
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Neurosis:Phobia, a type of anxiety disorder, is represented by inappropriate fears that are triggered by specific situations or seen psycho neurotic disorders.
9. Persistently repeats what another person says is called
(a) Obsession
(b) Echopraxia
(c) Echolalia
(d) Clang association
Ans. & Sol. (c) - Echolalia is a psychiatric disorder that makes someone meaninglessly repeat what another person says.
10. Patient with obsessive compulsive disorder is
(a) Suspicious and hostile
(b) Flexible and adaptable to change
(c) Extremely frightened of something
(d) Rigid in thoughts, inflexible with routine and rituals
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Rigid in thoughts, inflexible with routine and rituals: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by difficulty expressing warm and tender emotions, perfectionism(rigidity), stubbornness, the need to control others, and a devotion to work.
11. Nesseria gonococcus is the common organism for
(a) Viral conjunctivitis
(b) Allergic
(c) Bacterial
(d) Ophthalmia neonatorum
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Ophthalmia neonatorum: Ophthalmia neonatorum (newborn conjunctivitis) was caused principally by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.Gonococcal ophthalmia causes an acute purulent conjunctivitis that appears 2 to 5 days after birth or earlier with premature rupture of membranes.
12. Bone age is less than chronological age is the characteristic of
(a) Familial short stature
(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Hypopituitarism
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Both (b) and (c): hypothyroidism & hypopituitarism is main factors which helps for epiphyseal plate growths in bone .if it decreased it causes short stature.
13. Progressive enlargement of lymph node is seen in
(a) Scurvy
(b) ITP
(c) Hemophilia
(d) Hodgekins disease
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Hodgkin's disease : Hodgkin’s lymphoma, white blood cells called lymphocytes grow out of control, causing swollen lymph nodes and growths throughout the body.
14. Wilms tumour is related to which organ of the body
(a) Stomach
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Heart
Ans. & Sol. (b) - kidney: Wilms' tumor is the most common type of kidney cancer in children. Wilms' tumor is a rare kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Also known as nephroblastoma.
15. Children with Tetralogy of Fallot use which of the following positions?
(a) Supine
(b) Lateral
(c) Prone
(d) Squatting
Ans. & Sol. (d) - squatting: Squatting increases peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) and thus decreases the magnitude of the right-to-left shunt across the ventricular septal defect (VSD).
16. Rule of Ten is used for
(a) Cleft lip
(b) TEF
(c) Imperforate anus
(d) CHD
Ans. & Sol. (a) - cleft lip:The rule of ten is used as a reference to determine which patients are fit for surgery, especially for cleft lip patients.
17. Clinical manifestation of cystic fibrosis includes all except
(a) Corpulmonale
(b) Bronchiectasis
(c) Malabsorption
(d) Hypertension
Ans. & Sol. (d) - Hypertension: Clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis are
 Salty sweat; many parents notice a salty taste when kissing their child.
 Poor growth and weight gain (failure to thrive)
 Constant coughing and wheezing.
 Thick mucus or phlegm.
Greasy, smelly stools that are bulky and pale colored.
18. The normal calorie requirement for a 5-year old child is
(a) 800 calories (b) 1000 calories
(c) 1500 calories (d) 2000 calorie
Ans. & Sol. (d) - 2000: school-age children need about 1,600 to 2,500 calories per day. Children between the ages of 5 and 6 need 41 calories per pound of body weight.
19. Child born to diabetic mother can have
(a) Hypoglycaemia
(b) Hypocalcaemia
(c) Mental retardation
(d) All the above
Ans. & Sol. (d) - ALL OF THE ABOVE:Infant born to mother with type 1 or type 2 diabetes or gestational diabetes, hypoglycaemia,hyperbilirubinemia,respiratory distress syndrome, hypocalcaemia birth trauma and congenital anomalies.
20. Commonest cause of neonatal death in India is
(a) Prematurity
(b) Congenital malformation
(c) Metabolic disease
(d) Birth injury
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Pre Maturity: Pre maturity is leading cause in neonatal death.Premature (also known as preterm) birth is when a baby is born too early, before 37 weeks of pregnancy have been completed. The earlier a baby is born, the higher the risk of death or serious disability.
21. Human milk contains sugar per 100 ml
(a) 7 gm
(b) 5 gm
(c) 4 gm
(d) 9 gm
Ans. & Sol. (a) - 7gm: Human milk contains sugar is lactose Lactose in human’s milk ranges from 6.7 to 7.8 g per 100 ml.
22. Moniliasis is caused by
(a) Fungus Candida albican
(b) Bacteria
(c) Pneumococci
(d) None of the above
Ans. & Sol. (a) - Fungus Candida Albicans: candidiasis, also called moniliasis, infectious disease produced by the yeastlike fungus Candida albicans and closely related species.
23. Number of deciduous teeth
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 32
Ans. & Sol. (a) - 20: A child's mouth has 20 initial teeth, also called primary teeth, baby teeth, or deciduous teeth: There are typically — 10 upper and 10 lower.
24. Antidote of acetaminophen poisoning is
(a) Frusamide
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Ecetylcysteine
(d) Ethyknediominetetra acetic acid (EDTA)
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - N ACETYLCYSTEINE:N-Acetylcystine(Mucomyst) is the drug of choice for the treatment of acetaminophen overdose.
25. In a child, cessation of breathing for 20 seconds with bradycardia is
(a) Apnea
(b) Dyspnoea
(c) Seizures
(d) Cheyne stokes respiration
• Ans. & Sol. (a) - APNEA:Apnea can be defined as cessation of respiratory effort lasting more than 20 seconds, or if shorter duration, accompanied with bradycardia or cyanosis.
26. You observe that a neonate has cyanotic feet and hands within 12 hours after birth. What action should you take?
(a) Notify the physician
(b) Prepare to administer supplemental O2
(c) Make sure that the neonate is warm enough and continue observing him
(d) Apply warm compression hand and feet
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - Make sure that the neonate is warm enough and continue observing him:Hypothermia may cause in adequate oxygen utilisation then may lead impaired tissue perfusion.
27. Which vitamin must be taken with iron when child is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Niacin
(d) Riboflavin
• Ans. & Sol. (b) - ASCORBIC ACID :Vitamin C rich foods help in better absorption of iron. It captures non-haem iron and stores it in a form that the body can easily absorb.
28. Head control is possible in an infant at
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 5 months
(d) 10 months
• Ans. & Sol. (b) - 3 MONTHS :around 3 months of age, when most babies develop enough strength in their neck to keep their head partially upright. (Full control usually happens around 6 months.)
29. The complications of chidkenpox are all except
(a) Meningitis
(b) Enteritis
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Rey’s syndrome
• Ans. & Sol. (b) - Enteritis :Enteritis is inflammation of the small intestine. Chicken pox complications are meningitis ,pneumonia ,rarely reyes syndrome with aspirin use.
30. Imbalance or in-coordination of muscle that moves the eyeball is found in
(a) Conjunctivitis
(b) Squint strabismus
(c) Cataract
(d) Glaucoma
• Ans. & Sol. (b) - A squint strabismus ; Squint or strabismus is a condition in which the eyes do not align properly. One eye turns inwards, upwards, downwards, or outwards.
31. A nurse in the labour room is caring for a client in the active stage of labour. The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. The appropriate nursing action is to
(a) Administer oxygen via face mask
(b) Place the mother in a supine position
(c) Increase the rate of the Oxytocin (pitocin) intra venous infusion
(d) Document the findings and continue to monitor the fetal patterns
• Ans. & Sol. (a) - Administer oxygen via face mask:Late decelerations are due to uteroplacental insufficiency and occur because of decreased blood flow and oxygen to the fetus during the uterine contractions. Hypoxemia results; oxygen at 8 to 10 L/minute via face mask is necessary.
32. After an amniotomy has been performed, a nurse should first assess
(a) For cervical dilation
(b) For bladder distention
(c) The maternal blood pressure
(d) The fetal heart rate pattern
• Ans. & Sol. (d) - The fetal heart rate pattern: amniotomy is Amniotomy, also known as artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) or colloquially known as "breaking the water," is the intentional rupture of the amniotic sac by an obstetrical provider. So priorty in this procedure fetal distress to be monitored.
33. A client in labour has been pushing effectively for 1 hour. A nurse determines that client’s primary physiological need at this time is to
(a) Ambulate
(b) Rest between contractions
(c) Change positions frequently
(d) Consume oral food and fluids
• Ans. & Sol. (b) - Rest between contractions: The birth process expends a great deal of energy, particularly during the transition stage. Encouraging rest between contractions conserves maternal energy, facilitating voluntary pushing efforts with contractions.
34. A nurse is monitoring a client in the immediate post-partum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the following signs, if noted, would be an early sign of excessive blood loss?
(a) A temperature of 100.4 degree F
(b) A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mmHg
(c) An increase in the pulse rate from 88 to 102 beats/min
(d) An increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 beats/min
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - An increase in the pulse rate from 88 to 102 beats per minute: During the fourth stage of labor, the maternal blood pressure, pulse, and respiration should be checked every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse is an early sign of excessive blood loss because the heart pumps faster to compensate for reduced blood volume.
35. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome. The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan of care?
(a) Allow the newborn to establish own sleep-rest pattern
(b) Maintain the newborn in a brightly lighted area of the nursery
(c) Encourage frequent handling of the newborn by staff and parents
(d) Monitor the newborn’s response to feedings and weight gain pattern
• Ans. & Sol. (d) - Monitor the newborn’s response to feedings and weight gain pattern:Fetal alcohol syndrome, a diagnostic category delineated under fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs), is caused by maternal alcohol use during pregnancy. A primary nursing goal for the newborn diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome is to establish nutritional balance after birth. These newborns may exhibit hyperirritability, vomiting, diarrhea, or an uncoordinated sucking and swallowing ability.
36. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving Oxytocin (pitocin) to induce labour. The nurse discontinues the Oxytocin infusion if which of the following is noted on assessment of the client?
(a) Fatigue
(b) Drowsiness
(c) Uterine hyper stimulation
(d) Early deceleration of the fetal heart rate
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - Uterine Hyperstimulation: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and is a pharmacological method to induce labor. Late decelerations, a nonreassuringfetal heart rate pattern, is an ominous sign indicating fetal distress. Oxytocin infusion must be stopped when any signs of uterine hyperstimulation, late decelerations, or other adverse effects occur.
37. A client in preterm labour (31 weeks) who is dilated to 4 cm has been started on magnesium sulfate and contractions have stopped. If the client’s labour can be inhibited for the next 48 hours, what medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
(a) Betamethasone
(b) Nalbuphine (Nubain)
(c) Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
(d) Dinoprostone (Cervidil vaginal insert)
• Ans. & Sol. (a) - Betamethasone: Betamethasone a glucocorticoid, is given to increase the production of surfactant to stimulate fetal lung maturation. It is administered to clients in preterm labor at 28 to 32 weeks of gestation if the labor can be inhibited for 48 hours.
38. The opioid analgesic is administered to a client in labour. The nurse assigned to care for the client ensures that which medication is really available if respiratory depression occurs?
(a) Betamethasone
(b) Morphine sulfate
(c) Naloxone (Narcan)
(d) Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - Naloxone : Opioid analgesics may be prescribed to relieve moderate to severe pain associated with labor. Opioid toxicity can occur and cause respiratory depression. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist, which reverses the effects of opioids and is given for respiratory depression.
39. In multipara, time period of latent phase in partograph is about
(a) 4 hours
(b) 8 hours
(c) 12 hours breach of duty
(d) 16 hours
• Ans. & Sol. (a) - 4HRS:The latent phase averages about 8 hours for a nullipara (a woman having her first baby) and 4hours for a multipara (a woman having a subsequent baby).
40. The nurse, who has received no recent immunization, is stuck with needle that had been used on the patient. Which of the following is this nurse at greater risk of contracting?
(a) HIV
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) Hepatitis C
(d) Scabies
• Ans. & Sol. (b) - Hepatitis B: Hepatitis B is spread when blood, semen, or other body fluids from a person infected with the virus enters the body of someone who is not infected. This can happen through sexual contact; sharing needles, syringes, or other drug-injection equipment; or from mother to baby at birth.
41. Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy
(a) 12-14 weeks
(b) 14-16 weeks
(c) 16-18 weeks
(d) 9-11 weeks
• Ans. & Sol. (b) - 14-16 WEEKS :Amniocentesis is generally performed between 14 to 16 weeks' gestation to identify any fetal distress.
42. 21-year old Rashmi has arrived with c/o cramping abdominal pain and mild vaginal bleeding. Culdocentesis shows blood in the culdesa. This client probably has which of the following conditions?
(a) Abruptio placentae
(b) Ectopic pregnancy
(c) Hydatidiform mole
(d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
• Ans. & Sol. (b) - Ectopic pregnancy: most ectopic pregnancies don’t appear as obvious life threatening med emergencies. They must be considered in any sexually active woman of childbearing age who c/o menstrual irregularity, cramping abdominal pain, and mild vaginal bleeding. PID, abruptio placentae and hydatidiform moles won’t show blood in the cul de sac.
43. A patient 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the hospital with severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness and an increased uterine tone. The patient most likely has which of the following?
(a) Abruptio placenta
(b) Placenta previa
(c) Ectopic pregnancy
(d) Hydatidiform mole
• Ans. & Sol. (a) - Abruptio Placenta: There is dark red vaginal bleeding, uterine pain or tenderness or both, and uterine rigidity can seen . it is a condition where Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall after the 20th week of gestation and before the fetus is delivered.
44. Which of the following explanations best explains why a pregnant client should lie on her left side when resting or sleeping in the later stage of pregnancy?
(a) To facilitate digestion
(b) To facilitate bladder emptying
(c) To prevent compression of vena cava
(d) To avoid fetal anomalies
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - To prevent compression of vena cava: Supine hypotensive syndrome is caused when the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava when a pregnant woman is in a supine position, leading to decreased venous return centrally.
45. A woman has just given birth at 42 weeks of gestation. When assessing the neonate, which physical finding is expected?
(a) A sleepy, lethargic baby
(b) Lanugo covering body
(c) Desquamation of the epidermis
(d) Vernix caseosa covering the body
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - Desquamation of the epidermis: Postdate fetuses lose the vernix caseosa, and the epidermis may become desquamated. These neonates are usually very alert.
46. A client is receiving MgSO4 therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. The nurse must be alert for which of the following signs of excessive blood magnesium level?
(a) Increase in respiratory rate
(b) Sensorium stimulation
(c) Disappearance of knee-jerk reflex
(d) Appearance of cardiac dysarrythmias
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - Disappearance of knee -jerk reflex : The medication causes smooth muscle relaxation. Test the patellar reflex or knee jerk reflex before administering a repeat parenteral dose (used as an indicator of central nervous system depression; suppressed reflex may be a sign of impending respiratory arrest).
47. After reviewing the woman’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would the nurse anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate?
(a) Hypoglycemia
(b) Jitteriness
(c) Respiratory depression
(d) Tachycardia
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - Respiratory Depression: Magnesium Sulfate crosses the placenta, and adverse neonatal effects are respiratory depression, hypotonia, and bradycardia. The serum blood sugar isn't affected by magnesium sulfate. The neonate would be floppy, not jittery.
48. 27-year old Meera states that after the delivery she has noticed some of episodes of sadness and tearfulness. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
(a) Maternity blues
(b) Postpartum depression
(c) Postpartum mania
(d) Postpartum psychosis
• Ans. & Sol. (a) - maternity blues:Postpartum “blues” are defined as low mood and mild depressive symptoms that are transient and self-limited. the depressive symptoms include sadness, crying, exhaustion, irritability, anxiety, decreased sleep, decreased concentration, and labile mood.
49. Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease?
(a) IUCD
(b) Depo-Provera
(c) E-pills
(d) Oral contraceptive pills
• Ans. & Sol. (a) - IUCD: Barrier contraceptives are ideal for those with heart disease. Hormonal contraceptives are best avoided.
50. An important landmark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the descent of head is known as
(a) Linea terminals
(b) Sacurm
(c) Ischial spines
(d) Ischial tuberosities
• Ans. & Sol. (c) - Ischial spine: The head of the fetus is considered engaged when the vault is felt vaginally at or below the level of the ischial spine. Hence, it is an important landmark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the descent of the head of the baby.

Leave a Reply